OG12 CR 40

zhangluE

40. In the last decade there has been a significant
decrease in coffee consumption. During this same
time, there has been increasing publicity about the
adverse long-term effects on health of the caffeine in
coffee. Therefore, the decrease in coffee consumption
must have been caused by consumers’ awareness of
the harmful effects of caffeine.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously calls into
question the explanation above?
(A) On average, people consume 30 percent less
coffee today than they did 10 years ago.
(B) Heavy coffee drinkers may have mild withdrawal
symptoms, such as headaches, for a day or so
after significantly decreasing their coffee
consumption.
(C) Sales of specialty types of coffee have held
steady as sales of regular brands have declined.
(D) The consumption of fruit juices and caffeine-free
herbal teas has increased over the past decade.
(E) Coffee prices increased steadily in the past
decade because of unusually severe frosts in
coffee-growing nations.
OA: E
请问C为何错？

logowuyi

那么为什么不能选D呢？替代威胁不能作为销售下降的原因呢？

zhangluE

太感谢了，全明白了

MarilynR

我的理解：会买specialty types的顾客，一般应该是对咖啡更热衷的人，这些人因为习惯已深，不会太受“咖啡不健康”言论的影响。而正是对咖啡可有可无需求普通的顾客（只懂买regular brands），才会轻易受到影响，轻易放弃。所以整体销量的减少的确是因为受到“咖啡不健康”言论的影响，C选项不是正支持了原文观点吗