GWD 21-Q7---疑惑中...求助

tomrchu

GWD 21-Q7 to Q9:

 

Seventeenth-century philosopher John Locke stated that as much as 99 percent of the value of any useful product can be attributed to “the effects of labor.”  For Locke’s intellectual heirs it was only a short step to the “labor theory of value,” whose formulators held that 100 percent of the value of any product is generated by labor (the human work needed to produce goods) and that therefore the employer who appropriates any part of the product’s value as profit is practicing theft.

 

      Although human effort is required to produce goods for the consumer market, effort is also invested in making capital goods (tools, machines, etc.), which are used to facilitate the production of consumer goods.  In modern economies about one-third of the total output of consumer goods is attributable to the use of capital goods.  Approximately two-thirds of the income derived from this total output is paid out to workers as wages and salaries, the remaining third serving as compensation to the owners of the capital goods.  Moreover, part of this remaining third is received by workers who are shareholders, pension beneficiaries, and the like. The labor theory of value systematically disregards the productive contribution of capital goods—a failing for which Locke must bear part of the of the blame.

Q7:

 

According to the author of the passage, which of the following is true of the distribution of the income derived from the total output of consumer goods in a modern economy?

 

A.      Workers receive a share of this income that is significantly smaller than the value of their labor as a contribution to total output.

 

B.       Owners of capital goods receive a share of this income that is significantly greater than the contribution to total output attributable to the use of capital goods.

 

C.      Owners of capital goods receive a share of this income that is no greater than the proportion of total output attributable to the use of capital goods.

 

D.      Owners of capital goods are not fully compensated for their investment because they pay out most of their share of this income to workers as wages and benefits.

 

E.       Workers receive a share of this income that is greater than the value of their labor because the labor theory of value overestimates their contribution to total output.

 

答案是C, 可是我觉得A 也对啊..  帮忙解释一下好吗?

emma-maple

Q8:

The author of the passage is primarily concerned with

A.     criticizing Locke’s economic theories

B.       discounting the contribution of labor in a modern economy

C.      questioning the validity of the labor theory of value

D.      arguing for a more equitable distribution of business profits

E.       contending that employers are overcompensated for capital goods

我选错了, 应该是最后一句话:TS

The labor theory of value systematically disregards the productive contribution of capital goods—a failing for which Locke must bear part of the blame.

The labor theory of value systematically disregards the productive contribution of capital goods—a failing for which Locke must bear part of the blame.

ziwingfong

In modern economies about one-third of the total output of consumer goods is attributable to the use of

capital goods.  Approximately two-thirds of the income derived from this total output is paid out to

workers as wages and salaries, the remaining third serving as compensation to the owners of the capital goods.

总产出中有1/3 来自于capital goods

总收入的   2/3 付给 workers

省下收入的1/3  付给   owner of capital goods. 

tonisun2008

A在文中没有提到，所以不选,