88.
[url=]Court records from medieval France[/url] show that in the years 1300 to 1400 the
number of people arrested in the French realm for “violent interpersonal crimes”
(not committed in wars) increased by 30 percent over the number of people
arrested for such crimes in the years 1200 to 1300. If the increase was not the
result of false arrests, therefore, medieval France had a higher level of
documented interpersonal violence in the years 1300 to 1400 than in the years
1200 to 1300.
Which one of the following statements, if
true, most seriously weakens the argument?
A.
In the years 1300 to 1400 the
French government’s category of violent crimes included an increasing variety
of interpersonal crimes that are actually nonviolent.
B.
Historical accounts by monastic
chroniclers in the years 1300 to 1400 are filled with descriptions of violent
attacks committed by people living in the French realm.
C.
The number of individual agreements
between two people in which they swore oaths not to attack each other increased
substantially after 1300.
D.
When English armies tried to
conquer parts of France in
the mid-to late 1300s, violence in the northern province
of Normandy and the southwestern province of Gascony increased.
E.
The population of medieval France increased substantially during the first
five decades of the 1300s, until the deadly bubonic plague decimated the
population of France
after 1348.
答案是A. 其实我一开始扫一眼也认为是A. 理由是violent interpersonal crimes 增加的原因是增加了别的罪嘛。
但是，再一看，题干所推出来的结论是： therefore, medieval France had a higher level of
documented interpersonal violence in the years 1300 to 1400 than in the years
1200 to 1300. 请注意documented。不管新增的罪实际上是不是violent的，它还是包括在documented violence里面的。所以说，这个选项应该无关吧？
而原题又说了是a higher level of
，我理解是ratio的意思，那么E选项说1300前一半人口增加了很多，人口多犯罪也多，但是犯罪比例并不一定比以前高。所以这个应该可以weaken题中的推论。
不知我的想法对不对，请大家赐教。 | 
