GMAT——GWD阅读题汇总

imjar

做了两次GWD后觉得想把每种题型再集中过一次，如果逐一打开每套题太费时间，我就把题按类型分了一下。希望对有同样需要的考友有帮助。


下载链接：http://forum.topway.org/viewthread.php?tid=213372&extra=

judyenglishS

many  thanks  !!

imjar

GWD-31
Passage one
The Gross Domestic Product (GDP), which measures the dollar value of finished goods and services produced by an economy during a given period, serves as the chief indicator of the economic well-being of the United States. The GDP assumes that the economic significance of goods and services lies solely in their price, and that these goods and services add to the national well-being, not because of any intrinsic value they may possess, but simply because they were produced and bought. Additionally, only those goods and services involved in monetary transactions are included in the GDP. Thus, the GDP ignores the economic utility of such things as a clean environment and cohesive families and communities. It is therefore not merely coincidental, since national policies in capitalist and non-capitalist countries alike are dependent on indicators such as the GDP, that both the environment and the social structure have been eroded in recent decades. Not only does the GDP mask this erosion, it can actually portray it as an economic gain: an oil spill off a coastal region “adds” to the GDP because it generates commercial activity. In short, the nation’s central measure of economic well-being works like a calculating machine that adds but cannot subtract.

2: Which of the following best describes the function of the second sentence of the passage (lines 7-14: the GDP assumes that the economic significance …) in the context of the passage as a whole?
A: It describes an assumption about the GDP that is defended in the course of the passage.
B: It contributes to a discussion of the origins of the GDP.
C: It clarifies a common misconception about the use of the GDP.
D: It identifies a major flaw in the GDP
E: It suggests a revision to the method of calculating the GDP.

3: The primary purpose of the passage is to
A: identify ways in which the GDP could be modified so that it would serve as a more accurate indicator of the economic well being of the United States.
B: suggest that the GDP, in spite of certain shortcomings, is still the most reliable indicator of the economic well-being of the United States
C: examine crucial shortcomings of the GDP as an indicator of the economic well being of the United States
D: argue that the growth of the United States economy in recent decades has diminished the effectiveness of the GDP as an indicator of the nation’s economic well-being.
E: discuss how the GDP came to be used as the primary indicator of the economic well being of the United States

4: The passage implies that national policies that rely heavily on economic indicators such as the GDP tend to
A: become increasingly capitalistic in nature
B: disregard the economic importance of environmental and social factors that do not involve monetary transactions
C: overestimate the amount of commercial activity generated by environmental disasters
D: overestimate the economic significance of cohesive families and communities
E: assume that the economic significance of goods and services does not lie solely in the price of those goods and services

Passage two
A key decision required of advertising managers is whether a “hard-sell” or “soft-sell” strategy is appropriate for a specific target market. The hard-sell approach involves the use of direct, forceful claims regarding the benefits of the advertised brand over competitors’ offerings. In contrast, the soft-sell approach involves the use of advertising claims that imply superiority more subtly.
One positive aspect of the hard-sell approach is its use of very simple and straightforward product claims presented claims (?) presented as explicit conclusions, with little room for confusion regarding the advertiser’s message. However, some consumers may resent being told what to believe and some may distrust the message. Resentment and distrust often lead to counterargumentation and to boomerang effects where consumers come to believe conclusions diametrically opposed to conclusions endorsed in advertising claims. By contrast, the risk of boomerang erects is greatly reduced with soft-sell approaches. One way to implement the soft-sell approach is to provide information that implies the main conclusions the advertiser wants the consumer to draw, but leave the conclusions themselves unstated. Because consumers are invited to make up their own minds, implicit conclusions reduce the risk of resentment, distrust, and counterargumentation.
(Line 43) Recent research on consumer memory and judgment suggests another advantage of implicit conclusions. Beliefs or (form?) conclusions that are self-generated are more accessible from memory than beliefs from conclusions provided explicitly by other individuals, and thus have a greater impact on judgment and decision making. Moreover, self-generated beliefs are often perceived as more accurate and valid than the beliefs of others, because other individuals may be perceived as less less (?) knowledgeable, or may be perceived as manipulative or deliberately misleading.
Despite these advantages, implicit conclusions may not always be more effective than explicit conclusions. One risk is that some consumers may fail to draw their own conclusions and thus miss the point of the message. Inferential activity is likely only when consumers are motivated and able to engage in effortful cognitive processes. Another risk is that some consumers may draw conclusions other than the one intended. Even if inferential activity is likely, there is no guarantee that consumers will follow the path provided by the advertiser. Finally, a third risk is that consumers may infer the intended conclusion but question the validity of their inference.

5: The primary purpose of the passage is to
A: point out the risks involved in the use of a particular advertising strategy
B: make a case or the superiority of one advertising strategy over another
C: illustrate the ways in which two advertising strategies may be implemented
D: present the advantages and disadvantages of two advertising strategies
E: contrast the types of target markets for which two advertising strategies are appropriate  

6: it can be inferred from the passage that the research mentioned in line 43 (Recent research on consumer memory and judgment) supports which of the following statements?
A: implicit conclusions are more likely to capture accurately the point of the advertiser’s message than are explicit conclusions.
B: Counterargument action is less likely to occur if an individual’s beliefs or conclusions are readily accessible from memory.
C: The hard-sell approach results in conclusions that are more difficult for the consumer to recall than are conclusions resulting from the soft-sell approach.
D: When the beliefs of others are presented as definite and forceful claims, they are perceived to be as accurate as self-generated beliefs.
E: Despite the advantages of implicit conclusions, the hard-sell approach involves fewer risks for the advertiser than does the soft-sell approach.

7: It can be inferred from the passage that one situation in which the boomerang effect often occurs is when consumers
A: have been exposed to forceful claims that are diametrically opposed to those in an advertiser’s message
B: have previous self-generated beliefs or conclusions that are readily accessible from memory
C: are subjected to advertising messages that are targeted at specific markets to which those consumers do not belong
D: are confused regarding the point of the advertiser’s message
E: come to view the advertiser’s message with suspicion

8: It can be inferred from the passage that advertisers could reduce one of the risks discussed in the last paragraph if they were able to provide
A: motivation for consumers to think about the advertisement’s message
B: information that implies the advertiser’s intended conclusion but leaves that conclusion unstated
C: subtle evidence that the advertised product is superior to that of competitors
D: information comparing the advertised product with its competitors
E: opportunity for consumers to generate their own beliefs or conclusions

Passage three
Anthropologists once thought that the ancestors of modern humans began to walk upright because it freed their hands to use stone tools, which they had begun to make as the species evolved a brain of increased size and mental capacity. But discoveries of the three-million-year-old fossilized remains of our hominid ancestor Australopithecus have yielded substantial anatomical evidence that upright walking appeared prior to the dramatic enlargement of the brain and the development of stone tools.

Walking on two legs in an upright posture (bipedal locomotion) is a less efficient proposition than walking on all fours (quadrupedal locomotion) because several muscle groups that the quadruped uses for propulsion must instead to (?) provide the biped with stability and control. The shape and configuration of various bones must likewise be modified to allow the muscles to perform these functions in upright walking. Reconstruction of the pelvis (hipbones)  and femur (thighbone) of “Lucy”, a three-million-year-old skeleton that is the most complete fossilized skeleton from the australopithecine era, has shown that they are much more like the corresponding bones of the modern human than like those of the most closely related living primate, the quadrupedal chimpanzee. Lucy’s wide, shallow pelvis is actually better suited to bipedal walking than is the rounder, bowl-like pelvis of the modern human, which (?) evolved to form the larger birth canal needed to accommodate the head of a large-brained human infant. By contrast, the head of Lucy’s baby could have been no larger than that of a baby chimpanzee.

If the small-brained australopithecines were not toolmakers, what evolutionary advantage did they gain by walking upright? (Line 50) One theory is that bipedality evolved in conjunction with the nuclear family: monogamous parents cooperating to care for their offspring. Walking upright permitted the father to use his hands to gather food and carry it to his mate from a distance, allowing the mother to devote more time and energy to nurturing and protecting their children. According to this view, the transition to bipedal walking may have occurred as long as ten million years ago, at the time of the earliest hominids, making it a crucial initiating event in human evolution.

20: the passage suggests that proponents of the theory mentioned in lines 50-54 (One theory is … offspring) assume that which of the following steps in human evolution occurred most recently?
A: development of a nuclear family structure
B: transition from walking on all fours to walking upright
C: dramatic enlargement of the brain
D: use of the hands to gather and carry food
E: modification of propulsive muscles to provide stability and control in locomotion

21: the passage suggests that, in comparison with the hominid australopithecines, modern humans are
A: less well adapted to large group cooperation
B: less well adapted to walking upright
C: more agile in running and climbing
D: more well suited to a nuclear family structure
E: more well suited to cooperative caring for their offspring

22: According to the passage, the hominid australopithecine most closely resembled a modern human with respect to which of the following characteristics?
A: brain size
B: tool making ability
C: shape of the pelvis
D: method of locomotion
E: preference for certain foods

23: the primary purpose of the passage is to
A: present an interpretation of the chronological relationship between bipedal locomotion and certain other key aspects of human evolution
B: compare the evolutionary advantages and disadvantages of bipedal locomotion to those of quadrupedal locomotion
C: argue that the transition to a nuclear family structure was a more crucial step in human evolution than was the development of stone tools
D: analyze anatomical evidence of bipedal locomotion to show that the large brain of modern humans developed at a later stage of evolution than was previously believed
E: use examples of muscle and bone structure to illustrate the evolutionary differences between modern humans, australopithecines, and chimpanzees

imjar

This passage was adapted from an article written in 1990.

Research data indicate that
there is a great deal of poverty in
the United States among single-
Line  parent families headed by women.
(5)    This problem could result from
the fact that women’s wages are
only 60 percent of men’s. Some
economists believe that rigorous
enforcement of existing equal pay
(10)   laws would substantially decrease
this wage inequity. But equal pay
laws are ineffectual when women
and men are concentrated in different
occupations because such laws
(15)   require only that women and men
doing the same jobs be paid the
same. Since gender concentration
exists (for example, 80 percent of
clerical workers are women), other
(20)   economists argue that a comparable
worth standard, which would
mandate that women and men in
any jobs that require comparable
training and responsibility be paid
(25)   the same, should be applied
instead. But some policy analysts
assert that, although comparable
worth would virtually equalize male
and female wages, many single-
(30)   parent families headed by women
would remain in poverty because
many men earn wages that are
below the poverty line. These
policy analysts believe that the
(35)   problem is not caused primarily by
wage inequity but rather by low
wages coupled with single parent
hood, regardless of sex. As a
solution, they challenge the govern-
(40)   ment’s assumption that a family’s
income should depend primarily on
wages and urge the government to
provide generous wage supplements
(child and housing allow-
(45)   ances) to single parents whose
wages are low.

GWD 21-35
The passage suggests that the United States government’s policy towards providing wage supplements to parents whose wages are low is

A. considered ill advised by most economists who have studied the issue
B. based on assumptions about the appropriate sources of family income
C. under revision in response to criticism from some policy analysts
D. capable of eliminating wage inequality but not of raising incomes for both women and men  
E. applicable to single-parent families headed by women but not to single-parent families headed by men

GWD 21-36
Which of the following is most clearly an example of the policy advocated by the policy analysts mentioned in line 26 ?

A. A government provides training to women who wish to move out of occupations in which women are concentrated.
B. A government supports research that analyzes the connection between wage inequality and poverty among single-parent families headed by women.
C. A government surveys wages annually to make certain that women and men in the same jobs receive the same pay.
D. A government analyzes jobs in terms of the education and responsibility they require and publishes a list of jobs that should be considered equivalent for wage purposes.  
E. A government provides large rent subsidies to single parents whose wages are less than half the average worker’s wage.


GWD 21-37
According to the passage, some economists believe that, in the United States, there would be smaller differences between the wages of women and men who do the same jobs if

A. equal pay laws were enforced more fully
B. more stringent equal pay laws were passed
C. a more rigorous comparable worth standard were developed and applied
D. more men entered the occupations in which women are concentrated  
E. women received the same kind and amount of job training that men receive

GWD-28
28-passage one
Social learning in animals is said to occur when direct or indirect social interaction facilitates the acquisition of a novel behavior. It usually takes the form of an experienced animal (the demonstrator) performing a behavior such that the naïve animal (the observer) subsequently expresses the same behavior sooner, or more completely, than it would have otherwise. One example of social learning is the acquisition of preferences for novel foods. Some experiments have suggested that among mammals, social learning facilitates the identification of beneficial food items, but that among birds, social learning helps animals avoid toxic substances. For example, one study showed that when red-wing blackbirds observed others consuming a colored food (30) or a food in a distinctly marked container and then becoming ill, they subsequently avoided food associated with that color (35) or container. Another experiment showed that house sparrows consumed less red food after they observed others eating (40) red food that was treated so as to be noxious.  Studies on non-avian species have not produced similar results, leading researchers to speculate that avian social learning may be fundamentally different from that of mammals.
But Sherwin's recent (50) experiments with domestic hens do not support the notion that avian social learning necessarily facilitates aversion to novel (55) foods that are noxious or toxic. Even when demonstrator hens reacted with obvious disgust to a specific food, via vigorous head (60) shaking and bill wiping, there was no evidence that observers subsequently avoided eating that food. Sherwin's research team speculated that ecological or social constraints during the evolution of this species might have resulted in there being little benefit from the social learning of atability, for instance, selective pressures for this mode of learning would be reduced if the birds rarely encountered noxious or toxic food or rarely interacted after eating such food, or if the consequences of ingestion were minimal. (80) In a related experiment the same researchers showed that if observer hens watched demonstrator hens react favorably to food of a particular color, then observer hens ate more food of that color than they ate of food of other colors. These results confirmed that avian species can develop preferences for palatable food through social learning.

28-3: The primary purpose of the passage is to discuss the
A: techniques used in certain experiments on social learning in birds
B: reasons for the differences between social learning in birds and in mammals
C: question of how social learning manifests itself in birds
D: basis for a widespread belief about a difference in behavior between birds and mammals
E: possible reasons why birds may or may not learn from each other in a particular way

28-4: missing
28-5: According to the passage, which of the following is true of the experiments on domestic hens conducted by Sherwin’s research team?
A: Only a small number of observer hens appeared to learn to avoid food that was demonstrated by other hens to be noxious.
B: Observer hens ingested food preferentially only after numerous instances of witnessing demonstrator hens preferentially ingest that type of food.
C: Observer hens appeared unable to recognize when demonstrator hens found a particular food especially palatable.
D: Observer hens appeared unable to recognize when demonstrator hens found a particular food especially palatable.
E: Demonstrator hens altered their behavior less obviously in response to noxious foods than in response to highly palatable foods.

28-6: It can be inferred that the author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements regarding the results of the recent experiments conducted by Sherwin’s research team?
A: The experiments demonstrate that social learning in avian species facilitates the identification of noxious or toxic foods.
B: The experiments suggest that social learning has made avian species less adept than nonavian species at learning to prefer beneficial foods and avoid noxious and toxic foods.
C: The experiments undermine the notion that most avian species have evolved in environments where there is little benefit to the social learning of unpalatability.
D: The experiments suggest that the acquisition of food preferences in avian species is largely unaffected by social learning.
E: The experiments show that social learning in avian species can promote the preferential consumption of beneficial foods but do not support the claim that social learning in avian species promotes the avoidance of noxious or toxic foods.
28-passage two
Carotenoids, a family of natural pigments, form an important art of the colorful signals used by many animals. Animals acquire carotenoids either directly (from the plants and algae that produce them) or indirectly (by eating insects) and store them in a variety of tissues. Studies of several animal species have shown that when choosing mates, females prefer males with brighter carotenoid-based coloration. Owens and Olson hypothesize that the presence of carotenoids, as signaled by coloration, would be meaningful in the context of mate selection if carotenoids were either rare or required for health. The conventional (Line 15) view is that carotenoids are meaningful because they are rare: healthier males can forage for more of the pigments than can their inferior counterparts. Although this may be true, there is growing evidence that carotenoids are meaningful also because they are required: they are used by the immune system and for detoxification processes that are important for maintaining health. It may be that males can use scarce carotenoids either for immune defense and detoxification or for attracting females. Males that are more susceptible to disease and parasites will have to use their carotenoids to boost their immune systems, whereas males that are genetically resistant will use fewer carotenoids for fighting disease and will advertise this by using the pigments for flashy display instead.

28-13: Information in the passage suggests that which of the following is true of carotenoids that a male animal uses for detoxification processes?
A: They were not acquired directly from plants and algae
B: They cannot be replenished through foraging.
C: They cannot be used simultaneously to brighten coloration.
D: They do not affect the animal’s susceptibility to parasites.
E: They increase the chances that the animal will be selected as a mate.

28-14: The passage suggests that relatively bright carotenoid-based coloration is a signal of which of the following characteristics in males of certain animal species?
A: Readiness for mating behavior
B: Ability to fight
C: Particular feeding preferences
D: Recovery from parasite infestation
E: Fitness as a mate

28-15: According to the “conventional view” referred to in lines 14-15 of the passage, brighter carotenoid-based coloration in certain species suggests that an individual
A: lives in a habitat rich in carotenoid-bearing plants and insects
B: has efficient detoxification processes
C: has a superior immune system
D: possesses superior foraging capacity
E: is currently capable of reproducing
28-passage three
Many politicians, business leaders, and scholars discount the role of public policy and emphasize the role of the labor market when explaining employers' maternity-leave policies, arguing that prior to the passage of the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) of 1993, employers were already providing maternity leave in response to the increase in the number of women workers.  Employers did create maternity-leave programs in the 1970's and 1980's, but not as a purely voluntary response in the absence of any government mandate. In 1972, the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) ruled that employers who allowed leaves for disabling medical conditions must also allow them for maternity and that failure to do so would constitute sex discrimination under the Civil Rights Act of 1964.  As early as 1973, a survey found that 58 percent of large employers had responded with new maternity-leave policies. Because the 1972 EEOC ruling was contested in court, the ruling won press attention that popularized maternity-leave policies. Yet perhaps because the Supreme Court later struck down the ruling, politicians and scholars have failed to recognize its effects, assuming that employers adopted maternity-leave policies in response to the growing feminization of the workforce.

28-25: It can be inferred that the author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements about government policy?
A: Government policy is generally unaffected by pressures in the labor market.
B:  The impact of a given government policy is generally weakened by sustained press attention.
C: It is possible for a particular government policy to continue to have an impact after that policy has been eliminated.
D: A given government policy can be counterproductive when that policy has already unofficially been implemented.
E: The impact of a given government policy is generally weakened when the ruling is contested in court.

28-26: missing
28-27: The passage suggests that the relationship between the view of the author with respect to maternity leave policy prior to passage of the FMLA and the view of the politicians, business leaders, and scholars mentioned in lines 1-2 can best be characterized by which of the following statements?
A: They agree that both the 1972 EEOC ruling on maternity-leave policy and the increasing feminization of the workplace had an impact on employers’ creation of maternity-leave programs but disagree about the relative importance of each factor.
B: They agree that the EEOC ruling on maternity-leave policy had an initial impact on employers’ creation of maternity-leave programs but disagree over whether the Supreme Court’s striking down of the EEOC ruling weakened that impact.
C: They agree that creating maternity-leave programs was a necessary response to the needs of the increasing number of women workers but disagree about whether maternity should be classified as a disabling medical condition.
D: They agree that employers created maternity-leave programs prior to passage of the FMLA but disagree about employers’ motivations for doing so.
E: They agree that employers created maternity-leave programs prior to passage of the FMLA but disagree about how widespread those programs were.
28-passage four
Customer loyalty programs are attempts to bond customers to a company and its products and services by offering incentives – such as airline frequent flyer programs or special credit cards with valuable benefits – to loyal customers. In support of loyalty programs, companies often invoke the "80/20" principle, which states that about 80 percent of revenue typically comes from only about 20 percent of customers. However, this profitable 20 percent are not necessarily loyal buyers, especially in the sense of exclusive loyalty. Studies have demonstrated that only about 10 percent of buyers for many types of frequently purchased consumer goods are 100 percent loyal to a particular brand over a one-year period. Moreover, 100-percent-loyal buyers tend to be light buyers of the product or service. "Divided loyalty" better describes actual consumer behavior, since customers typically vary the brands they buy. The reasons for this behavior are fairly straightforward: people buy different brands for different occasions or for variety, or a brand may be the only one in stock or may offer better value because of a special deal. Most buyers who change brands are not lost forever; usually, they are heavy consumers who simply (35) prefer to buy a number of brands. Such multi-brand loyalty means that one company's most profitable customers will probably be its competitors' most profitable customers as well. (40) Still, advocates of loyalty programs contend that such programs are beneficial because the costs of serving highly loyal customers are lower, and because such loyal customers are less price sensitive than other customers. It is true that when there are start-up costs, such as credit checks, involved in serving a new customer, the costs exceed those of serving a repeat customer.  However, it is not at all clear why the costs of serving a highly loyal customer should in principle be different from those of serving any other type of repeat customer. The key variables driving cost are size and type of order, special versus standard order, and so on, not high-loyalty versus divided-loyalty customers. As for price sensitivity, highly loyal customers may in fact come to expect a price discount as a reward for their loyalty.

33: The primary purpose of the passage is to
A: question the notion that customer loyalty programs are beneficial
B: examine the reasons why many customers buy multiple brands of products
C: propose some possible alternatives to customer loyalty programs
D: demonstrate that most customers are not completely loyal to any one brand of product or service
E: compare the benefits of customer loyalty programs with those of other types of purchase incentive programs

imjar

Passage 3 (Q23-Q26)

Earth’s surface consists of rigid
plates that are constantly shifting and
jostling one another.  Plate movements
Line        are the surface expressions of motions
  (5)        in the mantle—the thick shell of rock
that lies between Earth’s crust and its
metallic core.  Although the hot rock of
the mantle is a solid, under the tre-
mendous pressure of the crust and
(10)        overlying rock of the mantle, it flows like
a viscous liquid.  The mantle’s motions,
analogous to those in a pot of boiling
water, cool the mantle by carrying hot
material to the surface and returning
(15)        cooler material to the depths.  When
the edge of one plate bends under
another and its cooler material is con-
sumed in the mantle, volcanic activity
occurs as molten lava rises from the
(20)        downgoing plate and erupts through the
overlying one.
Most volcanoes occur at plate
boundaries.  However, certain “mis-
placed” volcanoes far from plate
(25)        edges result from a second, indepen-
dent mechanism that cools the deep
interior of Earth.  Because of its prox-
imity to Earth’s core, the rock at the
base of the mantle is much hotter than
(30)        rock in the upper mantle.  The hotter the
mantle rock is, the less it resists flow-
ing.  Reservoirs of this hot rock collect
in the base of the mantle.  When a
reservoir is sufficiently large, a sphere
(35)         of this hot rock forces its way up
through the upper mantle to Earth’s
surface, creating a broad bulge in the
topography.  The “mantle plume” thus
formed, once established, continues to
(40)        channel hot material from the mantle
base until the reservoir is emptied.
The surface mark of an established
plume is a hot spot—an isolated
region of volcanoes and uplifted terrain
(45)        located far from the edge of a surface
plate.  Because the source of a hot
spot remains fixed while a surface
plate moves over it, over a long period
of time an active plume creates a chain
(50)        of volcanoes or volcanic islands, a
track marking the position of the plume
relative to the moving plate.  The natural
history of the Hawaiian island chain
clearly shows the movement of the
Pacific plate over a fixed plume.

GWD 21-23
It can be inferred from the passage that a chain of volcanoes created by a mantle plume would most likely be characterized by
               
F.        a curved outline
G.        constituent volcanoes that differ from each other in age
H.        occurrence near a plate boundary where one plate bends under another
I.        appearance near many other volcanic chains  
J.        rocks with a wide range of chemical composition


GWD 21-24
According to the passage, a hot spot on Earth’s surface is an indication of which of the following?

F.        An untapped reservoir of hot rock in the base of the mantle
G.        Volcanic activity at the edge of a plate
H.        Solid mantle rock under tremendous pressure
I.        The occurrence of a phenomenon unique to the Pacific plate  
J.        A plume of hot mantle rock originating near Earth’s core


GWD 21-25
The passage is primarily concerned with discussing
               
F.        the composition of Earth’s mantle
G.        how the Hawaiian Islands were created
H.        what causes Earth’s surface plates to move
I.        two different mechanisms by which volcanoes are formed  
J.        why most volcanoes occur at plate boundaries


GWD 21-26
The author’s reference to the Hawaiian Islands serves primarily to
               
F.        provide an example of a type of volcanic activity that does not occur elsewhere
G.        identify the evidence initially used to establish that the Pacific plate moves
H.        call into question a theory about the source of the volcanoes that created the Hawaiian Islands
I.        illustrate the distance from plate edges at which volcanoes typically appear  
J.        provide an example of how mantle plumes manifest themselves on Earth’s surface

imjar

passage 2 (Q15-Q18)

   In her account of unmarried
women’s experiences in colonial
Philadelphia, Wulf argues that edu-
Line        cated young women, particularly
(5)        Quakers, engaged in resistance to
patriarchal marriage by exchanging
poetry critical of marriage, copying
verse into their commonplace
books. Wulf suggests that this
(10)        critique circulated beyond the
daughters of the Quaker elite
and middle class, whose com-
monplace books she mines,
proposing that Quaker shools
(15)        brought it to many poor female
students of diverse backgrounds.
   Here Wulf probably overstates
Quaker schools’ impact. At least
three years’ study would be
(20)        necessary to achieve the literacy
competence necessary to grapple
with the material she analyzes.
In 1765, the year Wulf uses to
demonstrate the diversity of
(25)        Philadelphia’s Quaker schools,
128 students enrolled in these
schools. Refining Wulf’s numbers
by the information she provides
on religious affiliation, gender, and
(30)        length of study, it appears that only
about 17 poor non-quaker girls
were educated in Philadelphia’s
Quaker schools for three years or
longer. While Wulf is correct that
(35)        a critique of patriarchal marriage
circulated broadly, Quaker schools
probably cannot be credited with
instilling these ideas in the lower
classes. Popular literary satires
(40)        on marriage had already landed
on fertile ground in a multiethnic
population that embodied a wide
range of marital beliefs and
practices. These ethnic- and
(45)        class-based traditions them-
selves challenged the legitimacy
of patriarchal marriage.

GWD 21-15
The primary purpose of the passage is to
A. argue against one aspect of Wulf’s account of how ideas critical of marriage were disseminated among young women in colonial Philadelphia
B. discuss Wulf’s interpretation of the significance for educated young women in colonial Philadelphia of the poetry they copied into their commonplace books
C. counter Wulf’s assertions about the impact of the multiethnic character of colonial Philadelphia’s population on the prevalent views about marriage
D. present data to undermine Wulf’s assessment of the diversity of the student body in Quaker schools in colonial Philadelphia  
E. challenge Wulf’s conclusion that a critique of marriage was prevalent among young women of all social classes in colonial Philadelphia


GWD 21-16
According to the passage, which of the following was true of attitudes toward marriage in colonial Philadelphia?
A.        Exemplars of a critique of marriage could be found in various literary forms, but they did not impact public attitudes except among educated young women.
B.        The diversity of the student body in the Quaker schools meant that attitudes toward marriage were more disparate there than elsewhere in Philadelphia society.
C.        Although critical attitudes toward marriage were widespread, Quaker schools’ influence in disseminating these attitudes was limited.
D.        Criticisms of marriage in colonial Philadelphia were directed at only certain limited aspects of patriarchal marriage.  
E.        The influence of the wide range of marital beliefs and practices present in Philadelphia’s multiethnic population can be detected in the poetry that educated young women copied in their commonplace books.


GWD 21-17
The author of the passage implies which of the following about the poetry mentioned in the first paragraph?
A.        Wulf exaggerates the degree to which young women from an elite background regarded the poetry as providing a critique of marriage.
B.        The circulation of the poetry was confined to young Quaker women.
C.        Young women copied the poetry into their commonplace books because they interpreted it as providing a desirable model of unmarried life.
D.        The poetry’s capacity to influence popular attitudes was restricted by the degree of literacy necessary to comprehend it.  
E.        The poetry celebrated marital beliefs and practices that were in opposition to patriarchal marriage.


GWD 21-18
Which of the following, if true, would most seriously undermine the author’s basis for saying that Wulf overstates Quaker schools’ impact (line 17-18) ?
A.        The information that Wulf herself provided on religious affiliation and gender of students is in fact accurate.
B.        Most poor, non-Quaker students enrolled in Quaker schools had completed one or two years’ formal or informal schooling before enrolling.
C.        Not all of the young women whose commonplace books contained copies of poetry critical of marriage were Quakers.
D.        The poetry featured in young women’s commonplace books frequently included allusions that were unlikely to be accessible to someone with only three years’ study in school.
E.        In 1765 an unusually large proportion of the Quaker schools’ student body consisted of poor girls from non-Quaker backgrounds.

imjar

GWD-21
Passage 1 (Q7-Q9)

           Seventeenth-century
        philosopher John Locke
        stated that as much as
Line        99 percent of the value of
(5)        any useful product can be
attributed to “the effects of
labor.” For Locke’s intellec-
tual heirs it was only a short
step to the “labor theory of
(10)        value,” whose formulators
held that 100 percent of the
value of any product is gen-
erated by labor (the human
work needed to produce
(15)        goods) and that therefore the
employer who appropriates
any part of the product’s
value as profit is practicing
theft.
(20)           Although human effort is
required to produce goods
for the consumer market,
effort is also invested in
making capital goods (tools,
(25)        machines, etc.), which are
used to facilitate the produc-
tion of consumer goods. In
modern economies about
one-third of the total output of
(30)        consumer goods is attribut-
able to the use of capital
goods. Approximately two-
thirds of the income derived
from this total output is paid
(35)        out to workers as wages and
salaries, the remaining third
serving as compensation
to the owners of the capital
goods. Moreover, part
(40)        of this remaining third is
received by workers who
are shareholders, pension
beneficiaries, and the like.
The labor theory of value
(45)        systematically disregards
the productive contribution of
capital goods-- a failing for
which Locke must bear part
of the blame.

GWD 21-7
According to the author of the passage, which of the following is true of the distribution of the income derived from the total output of consumer goods in a modern economy?
A.        Workers receive a share of this income that is significantly smaller than the value of their labor as a contribution to total output.
B.        Owners of capital goods receive a share of this income that is significantly greater than the contribution to total output attributable to the use of capital goods.
C.        Owners of capital goods receive a share of this income that is no greater than the proportion of total output attributable to the use of capital goods.
D.        Owners of capital goods are not fully compensated for their investment because they pay out most of their share of this income to workers as wages and benefits.  
E.        Workers receive a share of this income that is greater than the value of their labor because the labor theory of value overestimates their contribution to total output.


GWD 21-8
The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
A.        criticizing Locke’s economic theories
B.        discounting the contribution of labor in a modern economy
C.        questioning the validity of the labor theory of value
D.        arguing for a more equitable distribution of business profits  
E.        contending that employers are overcompensated for capital goods


GWD 21-9
Which of the following arguments would a proponent of the labor theory of value, as it is presented in the first paragraph, be most likely to use in response to the statement that “The labor theory of value systematically disregards the productive contribution of capital goods” (lines 44-47)?
A.        The productive contributions of workers and capital goods cannot be compared because the productive life span of capital goods is longer than that of workers.
B.        The author’s analysis of the distribution of income is misleading because only a small percentage of workers are also shareholders.
C.        Capital goods are valuable only insofar as they contribute directly to the production of consumer goods.
D.        The productive contribution of capital goods must be discounted because capital goods require maintenance.  
E.        The productive contribution of capital goods must be attributed to labor because capital goods are themselves products of labor.

imjar

of dinosaurs have long debated whether
          dinosaurs were warm- or cold-blooded.
Line  Those who suspect they were warm-
  (5)  blooded point out that dinosaur bone
is generally fibro-lamellar in nature;
because fibro-lamellar bone is formed
quickly, the bone fibrils, or filaments, are
laid down haphazardly.  Consistent with
(10)  their rapid growth rate, warm-blooded
animals, such as birds and mammals,
tend to produce fibro-lamellar bone,
whereas reptiles, which are slow-
growing and cold-blooded, generally
(15)  produce bone in which fibrils are laid
down parallel to each other.  Moreover,
like the bone of birds and mammals,
dinosaur bone tends to be highly
vascularized, or filled with blood
(20)  vessels.  These characteristics,
          first recognized in the 1930’s,
          were documented in the 1960’s by
de Ricqlès, who found highly vascular-
ized, fibro-lamellar bone in several
(25)  groups of dinosaurs.  In the 1970’s,
Bakker cited these characteristics as
evidence for the warm-bloodedness of
dinosaurs.  Although de Ricqlès urged
caution, arguing for an intermediate type
(30)  of dinosaur physiology, a generation of
paleontologists has come to believe
that dinosaur bone is mammalianlike.
      In the 1980’s, however, Bakker’s
          contention began to be questioned, as a
(35)  number of scientists found growth rings
in the bones of various dinosaurs that
are much like those in modern reptiles.
Bone growth in reptiles is periodic in
nature, producing a series of concentric
(40)  rings in the bone, not unlike the growth
          rings of a tree.  Recently, Chinsamy
investigated the bones of two dino-
saurs from the early Jurassic period
(208-187 million years ago), and found
(45)  that these bones also had growth rings;
however, they were also partially fibro-
lamellar in nature.  Chinsamy’s work
raises a question central to the debate
over dinosaur physiology:  did dino-
(50)  saurs form fibro-lamellar bone because
of an innately high metabolic rate asso-
ciated with warm-bloodedness or
because of periods of unusually fast
growth that occurred under favorable
(55)  environmental conditions?  (Although
modern reptiles generally do not form
fibro-lamellar bone, juvenile crocodiles
raised under optimal environmental
conditions do.)  This question remains
(60)  unanswered; indeed, taking all the evi-
dence into account, one cannot make
a definitive statement about dinosaur
physiology on the basis of dinosaur
bone.  It may be that dinosaurs had an
(65)  intermediate pattern of bone structure
because their physiology was neither
typically reptilian, mammalian, nor avian.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q33:
The author of the passage would be most likely to agree that the “caution” (line 29) urged by de Ricqlès regarding claims about dinosaur physiology was
               
A.        unjustified by the evidence available to de Ricqlès
B.        unnecessary, given the work done by Bakker and his followers
C.        indicative of the prevailing scientific opinion at the time
D.        warranted, given certain subsequent findings of other scientists
E.        influential in the recent work of Chinsamy
Answer:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q34:
The primary purpose of the passage is to
               
A.        discuss the influence on other scientists of Bakker’s argument concerning the warm-bloodedness of dinosaurs
B.        provide evidence that supports the claim that dinosaurs were cold-blooded
C.        challenge the contention that dinosaur bone tissue is innately fibro-lamellar
D.        evaluate the claim that dinosaur bone tissue provides evidence for the warm-bloodedness of dinosaurs
E.        resolve the disagreement between de Ricqlès and Bakker over the nature of dinosaur physiology
Answer:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q35:
According to the passage, the discovery of growth rings in the bones of certain dinosaurs served to undermine which of the following claims?
               
A.        That modern reptiles are related to dinosaurs
B.        That bone growth in dinosaurs was periodic in nature
C.        That dinosaurs were warm-blooded
D.        That dinosaurs had an intermediate type of physiology
E.        That fibro-lamellar bone is the product of a rapid growth rate
Answer:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q36:
The author of the passage mentions bone growth patterns in juvenile crocodiles most likely in order to

A.        provide support for the argument that reptiles are not related to dinosaurs
B.        undermine the claim that most reptiles are slow-growing
C.        offer an explanation as to why juvenile crocodiles differ from most modern reptiles
D.        suggest the juvenile crocodiles have a type of physiology intermediate between that of mammals and that of reptiles
E.        suggest that the presence of fibro-lamellar bone does not resolve the debate over dinosaur physiology

imjar

Among the myths taken as
          fact by the environmental manag-
          ers of most corporations is the
Line  belief that environmental regula-
  (5)  tions affect all competitors in
a given industry uniformly.  In
reality, regulatory costs—and
therefore compliance—fall
unevenly, economically disad-
(10)  vantaging some companies and
benefiting others.  For example,
a plant situated near a number
of larger noncompliant competi-
tors is less likely to attract the
(15)  attention of local regulators than
is an isolated plant, and less
attention means lower costs.
Additionally, large plants can
spread compliance costs such
(20)  as waste treatment across a
          larger revenue base; on the other
          hand, some smaller plants may
not even be subject to certain
provisions such as permit or
(25)  reporting requirements by virtue
of their size.  Finally, older pro-
duction technologies often
continue to generate toxic wastes
that were not regulated when the
(30)  technology was first adopted.
New regulations have imposed
extensive compliance costs on
          companies still using older
industrial coal-fired burners that
(35) generate high sulfur dioxide and
nitrogen oxide outputs, for
example, whereas new facilities
generally avoid processes that
          would create such waste pro-
(40) ducts. By realizing that they
have discretion and that not all
industries are affected equally
by environmental regulation,
environmental managers can
(45)  help their companies to achieve
a competitive edge by anticipat-
ing regulatory pressure and
exploring all possibilities for
addressing how changing regula-
(50)  tions will affect their companies
specifically.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q9:
Which of the following hypothetical examples would best illustrate the point the author makes in lines 40-51 (“By realizing … specifically.”)?
               
A.        Believing its closest competitor is about to do the same, a plant reduces its output of a toxic chemical at great cost in order to comply with environmental regulations.
B.        In the face of new environmental regulations, a plant maintains its production methods and passes the costs of compliance on to its customers.
C.        A plant’s manager learns of a competitor’s methods of lowering environmental compliance costs but is reluctant to implement those methods.
D.        Having learned of an upcoming environmental ban on a certain chemical, a company designs its new plant to employ processes that avoid use of that chemical.
E.        A plant attempts to save money by refusing to comply with environmental laws.
Answer:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q10:
According to the passage, which of the following statements about sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide outputs is true?
               
A.        Older production technologies cannot be adapted so as to reduce production of these outputs as waste products.
B.        Under the most recent environmental regulations, industrial plants are no longer permitted to produce these outputs.
C.        Although these outputs are environmentally hazardous, some plants still generate them as waste products despite the high compliance costs they impose.
D.        Many older plants have developed innovative technological processes that reduce the amounts of these outputs generated as waste products.
E.        Since the production processes that generate these outputs are less costly than alternative processes, these less expensive processes are sometimes adopted despite their acknowledged environmental hazards.
Answer:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q11:
The passage suggests which of the following concerning the relationship between the location of a plant and the compliance costs it faces?
               
A.        A plant is less likely to face high compliance costs if it is located near larger plants that are in violation of environmental regulations.
B.        An isolated plant is less likely to draw the attention of environmental regulators, resulting in lower compliance costs.
C.        A large plant that is located near other large facilities will most probably be forced to pay high compliance costs.
D.        A small plant that is located near a number of larger plants will be forced to absorb some of its neighbors’ compliance costs.
E.        A plant will often escape high compliance costs if it is located far away from environmental regulatory agencies.
In the 1930’s and 1940’s,
          African American industrial
          workers in the southern United
Line  States, who constituted 80 per-
  (5)  cent of the unskilled factory labor
force there, strongly supported
unionization.  While the American
Federation of Labor (AFL) either
excluded African Americans or
(10)  maintained racially segregated
unions, the Congress of Industrial
Organizations (CIO) organized
integrated unions nationwide on the
basis of a stated policy of equal
(15)  rights for all, and African American
unionists provided the CIO’s back-
bone.  Yet it can be argued that
through contracts negotiated and
enforced by White union mem-
(20)  bers, unions—CIO unions not
          excluded—were often instrumen-
          tal in maintaining the occupational
segregation and other forms of
racial discrimination that kept
(25)  African Americans socially and
economically oppressed during
this period.  However, recognizing
employers’ power over workers
as a central factor in African
(30)  Americans’ economic marginal-
ization, African American workers
saw the need to join with White
          workers in seeking change despite
White unionists’ toleration of or
(35) support for racial discrimination.
The persistent efforts of African
American unionists eventually paid
off:  many became highly effective
          organizers, gaining the respect of
(40)        even racist White unionists by win-
ning victories for White as well as
African American workers.  African
American unionists thus succeeded
in strengthening the unions while
(45)  using them as instruments of
African Americans’ economic
empowerment.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q21:
The passage is primarily concerned with
               
A.        demonstrating that unions failed to address the concerns of African American workers during a particular period
B.        arguing that African American workers’ participation in unions during a particular period was ultimately beneficial to them
C.        contrasting the treatment of African American workers by two different labor organizations during a particular period
D.        giving reasons for the success of African American unionists in winning victories for both African American and White workers during a particular period
E.        questioning one explanation for the attitudes of African American workers toward unionization during a particular period
Answer:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q22:
According to the passage, which of the following was true of many racist White unionists during the period discussed in the passage?
               
A.        Their attitudes toward African American union organizers changed once they recognized that the activities of these organizers were serving workers’ interests.
B.        They were a powerful element in the southern labor movement because they constituted the majority of the unskilled factory labor force in the southern United States.
C.        They persisted in opposing the CIO’s adoption of a stated policy of equal rights for all.
D.        Their primary goal was to strengthen the negotiating power of the unions through increasing White union membership.
E.        Their advocacy of racial discrimination hampered unions in their efforts to gain more power for workers.
Answer:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q23:
The author of the passage suggests which of the following about African American workers who participated in union activities in the 1930’s and 1940’s?
               
A.        They believed that the elimination of discrimination within unions was a necessary first step toward the achievement of economic advancement for African Americans.
B.        They belonged exclusively to CIO unions because they were excluded from AFL unions.
C.        They believed that the economic advancement of African American workers depended on organized efforts to empower all workers.
D.        Some of them advocated the organization of separate African American unions because of discriminatory practices in the AFL and the CIO.
E.        Many of them did not believe that White unionists in CIO unions would tolerate or support racial discrimination against African American workers.
Scientists studying the physiology

imjar

GWD-19
By the sixteenth century, the Incas
          of South America ruled an empire that
          extended along the Pacific coast and
Line  Andean highlands from what is now
  (5)  Ecuador to central Chile.  While most
of the Incas were self-sufficient
agriculturists, the inhabitants of the
highland basins above 9,000 feet were
constrained by the kinds of crops they
(10)  could cultivate.  Whereas 95 percent
of the principal Andean food crops can
be cultivated below 3,000 feet, only
20 percent reproduce readily above
9,000 feet.  Given this unequal
(15)  resource distribution, highland Incas
needed access to the products of
lower, warmer climatic zones in order
to enlarge the variety and quantity of
their foodstuffs.  In most of the prein-
(20)  dustrial world, the problem of different
resource distribution was resolved by
long-distance trade networks over
          which the end consumer exercised
          little control.  Although the peoples
(25)  of the Andean highlands participated
in such networks, they relied primarily
on the maintenance of autonomous
production forces in as many eco-
logical zones as possible.  The
(30)  commodities produced in these
zones were extracted, processed,
and transported entirely by members
of a single group.
      This strategy of direct access
(35)  to a maximum number of ecological
zones by a single group is called
vertical economy.  Even today,
one can see Andean communities
maintaining use rights simultaneously
(41)        to pasturelands above 12,000 feet, to
potato fields in basins over 9,000 feet,
          and to plots of warm-land crops in
regions below 6,000 feet.  This
strategy has two principal variations.
(45)  The first is “compressed verticality,”
in which a single village resides in
a location that permits easy access
to closely located ecological zones.
Different crop zones or pasturelands
(50)  are located within a few days walk of
the parent community.  Community
members may reside temporarily
in one of the lower zones to manage
the extraction of products unavailable
(55)  in the homeland.  In the second varia-
tion, called the “vertical archipelago,”
the village exploits resources in widely
dispersed locations, constituting a
series of independent production
(60)  “islands.”  In certain pre-Columbian
Inca societies, groups were sent from
the home territory to establish perma-
nent satellite communities or colonies
in distant tropical forests or coastal
(65)  locations.  There the colonists grew
crops and extracted products for their
own use and for transshipment back
to their high-altitude compatriots.
In contrast to the compressed
(70)  verticality system, in this system,
commodities rather than people
circulated through the archipelago.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q4:
According to the passage, which of the following is true about the preindustrial long-distance trade networks mentioned in line 22 ?
               
K.        They were not used extensively in most of the preindustrial world.
L.        They were used to some extent by the people of the Andean highlands.
M.        They were not an effective means of solving the problem of different resource distribution.
N.        They necessitated the establishment of permanent satellite communities in widely dispersed locations.
O.        They were useful only for the transportation of products from warm climatic zones.
Answer:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q5:
According to the passage, the inhabitants of the Andean highlands resolved the problem of unequal resource distribution primarily in which of the following ways?
               
K.        Following self-sufficient agricultural practices
L.        Increasing commodity production from the ecological zones in the highland basins
M.        Increasing their reliance on long-distance trade networks
N.        Establishing satellite communities throughout the Andean highlands
O.        Establishing production forces in ecological zones beyond their parent communities
Answer:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q6:
The passage suggests that as a way of addressing the problem of different resource distribution in the preindustrial world, the practice of vertical economy differed from the use of long-distance trade networks in that vertical economy allowed
               
K.        commodities to reach the end consumer faster
L.        a wide variety of agricultural goods to reach the end consumer
M.        a single group to maintain control over the production process
N.        greater access to commodities from lower, warmer climatic zones
O.        greater use of self-sufficient agricultural techniques
Answer:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q7:
The passage suggests that for an Andean highland village attempting to resolve the problem of unequal resource distribution, the strategy known as compressed verticality would probably be inappropriate for which of the following situations?

F.        The village’s location is such that it is difficult for the village to participate in long-distance trade networks.
G.        The village does not have the resources to establish permanent satellite communities in production zones beyond the home community.
H.        The warm-land crop regions nearest to the village are all below 6,000 feet.
I.        The location of the village does not provide ready access to an adequate variety of ecological zones.
J.        The nearest crop production zones are located below the village, while the nearest pasturelands are located above the village.