For a local government to out law all strikes by its workers is a costly mistake, because all its labor disputes must then be settled by binding arbitration, without any begotiated public-sector labor settlements guiding the arbitrators. Strikes should be outlawed only for categories lf public-sector worders for whose services no acceptable substitute exists.
The statements above best support which of the following conclusions?
A) Where public-service workers are permitted to strike, contract negotiations with those workers are typically settled without a strike.
B) Where strikes by all categoties of public-sector workers are outlawed, no acceptable substitutes for the services provided by any of those workers are available.
C) Binding arbitration tends to be more advantageous for public-service workers where it is the only avaiolable means of settling labor disputes with such workers.
D) Most categories of public-sector sorkers have no counterparts in the private sector.
E) Astike by workers in a local government is unlikely to be settled without help grom and arbitrator.[em12]
I THINK IS cccc, I CAN'T EXPLAIN IN DETAIL, BUT A,B,D,E IS CLEARLY WRONG ANSWER.
BECAUSE THE QUESTION IS
the statements above best support which of the following conclusions?
LOOKING FORWARD TO FURTHER DISCUSSION AND REASONABLE EXPLAINATION.
