Large national budget deficits do not cause large trade deficits.
If they did, countries with the largest budget deficits would also have the largest trade deficits.
In fact, when deficit figures are adjusted so that different countries are reliably comparable to each other,
there is no such correlation.
If the statements above are all true, which of the following can properly be inferred on the basis of them?
(A) Countries with large national budget deficits tend to restrict foreign trade.
(B) Reliable comparisons of the deficit figures of one country with those of another are impossible.
(C) Reducing a country’s national budget deficit will not necessarily result in a lowering of any trade deficit that country may have.
(D) When countries are ordered from largest to smallest in terms of population, the smallest countries generally have the smallest budget and trade deficits.
(E) Countries with the largest trade deficits never have similarly large national budget deficits.
The passage asserts that large budgets deficits do not cause large trade deficits.
If this is so, it is possible that a country with large budget
and trade deficits could reduce its budget deficit and yet retain a large trade deficit.
Thus, choice C is the best answer.
None of the other choices can be inferred.
The passage says nothing about how countries respond to large budget deficits (choice A). The passage states that comparing deficit figures for different countries can be reliable (contrary to choice B). Correlation between deficit size and population size (choice D) is not at issue in the passage.
Finally, it is consistent with the passage
that countries with the largest trade deficits sometimes have similarly large budget deficits (choice E).
关于B选项，对应的题目最后一句话
In fact, when deficit figures are adjusted so that different countries are reliably comparable to each other, there is no such correlation.
不是可以理解为 “事实上当赤字指数调节不同国家可以相互可靠比较这种联系是没有的”么。
为什么B选项错？而且OG的解释是文章中不同国家赤字指数相比较是可靠的，那there is no such correlation指的是什么啊？
求牛牛解答啊～～！！！万分感谢～！ 作者: pfullsomer 时间: 2011-4-23 20:04
1. "there is no such correlation" means no direct relation between "national budger deficits" and "trade deficits".
2. (B) is wrong because the question has already emphasized that "If the statements above are all true", which means "when deficit figures are adjusted so that different countries are reliably comparable to each other" must be ture. (B) conveys a meaning contrary to this MUST BE TURE premise.作者: bettyofariN 时间: 2011-4-24 19:59
谢谢作者: sunflower88 时间: 2011-4-28 06:24
when deficit figures are adjusted so that different countries are reliably comparable to each other, there is no such correlatio
