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标题: 请问这题怎么做? [打印本页]

作者: discard    时间: 2002-9-6 09:37     标题: 请问这题怎么做?

请问这题怎么做?
1/a+1/b+1/c+1/d+1/e=1,a...e 全是不同的正整数,问a+b+c+d+e的least possible value?
作者: licheng    时间: 2002-9-6 09:47

这是GMAT的题目吗:目, 昏。。。这么难。。。让我想一想:(
作者: licheng    时间: 2002-9-6 10:23

OK,我得到:
1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/9 + 1/72 = 1
如果这个是对的话。。。
请您在我楼下留言,我把想法帖上来:)
不然我写一堆大家笑一堆。。看完了大家牙齿都没了。。。我负担不起:)
作者: tongxun    时间: 2002-9-6 10:40

讲来听听!讨论题目最重要是从别人那里学习思路!
作者: vanyu    时间: 2002-9-6 11:25

but 1/2+1/3+1/6=1
作者: tongxun    时间: 2002-9-6 14:15

VANYU:你少了2个数啊!A、B、C、D、E中的D、E
作者: licheng    时间: 2002-9-6 23:38

OK.lemme present my logic.
quite fussy...but..in gmat, no need to thingk about this too much

1。consider how to choose the first number.
well, naturally we will choose 2, why?
if we exclude 2, then we probably will choose another number , which must be greater than 2, and following any algorithm down, we must choose 5 numbers whose sum must be greater than the group with 2. Therefore, we will choose 2 as the first number.
2.if i chose 2 as first number, how to choose next?
well, 1/2 is the largest in such kind of fraction(i mean, 1/2 > 1/x, where x >2), however, to maintain the sum of those numbers minimum, we still have to choose small numbers, while make the fraction very big. The balance is only solved by making the next fraction half of the remaining balance, i.e. the next 1/b will be half of 1-1/2=1/2, that is 1/4
3.in this way, we could then have 1/8, then remaining becomes 1/8.
4, we can't cut 1/8 in half at this time, cause it says d and e are not equal, however, in this case, we could only find two numbers, 1/d + 1/e = 1/8.
As can be proved, if 1/d+1/e = 1/8, and d!=e,then d, e both have to be greater than 16. Therefore let's make d = 9 then e will be equal to 72.

SOme one will argue that we can repeat the process in 4 from the very beginning, however, i tried, which yields to be bigger than what i have now, therefore, i am quite confident that this is the minimum (2+4+8+9+72)./

作者: discard2    时间: 2002-9-7 01:27

Thank you for your analysis, only minor mistake at the step 4.

1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/12 + 1/24
作者: licheng    时间: 2002-9-7 01:31

yup,...
see. someone must have been laughing till teeth fell down
BUT, to get to 12 and 24 really need some luck...doesn;t it?
作者: discard2    时间: 2002-9-7 01:33

the lemma here could be

1. Try to divide the total value into two parts.
2. Try to keep the value of two parts close to the middle point!

Here the middle point, e.g. in step 4, say 16, since 12 and 24 are closer to 16 than 9 and 72. While I could not give out the general solution. Somehow, need TRY all kinds of possible number combination at the end.
作者: discard2    时间: 2002-9-7 01:35

To be honest, I am laughing just now, but actually, your effort is the basement. Nice to dicuss it with you.
作者: licheng    时间: 2002-9-7 05:58

TURE, NICE STUFF
作者: tongxun    时间: 2002-9-7 11:41

Hope you guys enjoy GMAT。
作者: redwithblack    时间: 2002-9-27 22:10

1/3+1/4+1/5+1/6+1/15=1,且分母的和最小
作者: redtea    时间: 2002-9-28 11:17

我也无法给出general的解法,但大体思路同上,1/2, 1/4, 1/6,1/12之和为1,只要拆开其中一个为1/x,1/y之和,1/6为首选拆成4/24=3/24+1/24=1/8+1/24
2,4,8,12,24要更小。
作者: redtea    时间: 2002-9-28 11:18

刚才没看第二页,抱歉。
原来还有更小的和,请告知解法。
作者: maryland    时间: 2002-9-28 21:36

1/3+1/4+1/5+1/6+1/15=61/60不=1啊。
狒狒的解答是:
1/3+1/4+1/5+1/6+1/20=1。
试出来的,没法从理论上论证该值最小,当时叫我们记住答案即可。




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