| 一遍又一遍的看题目，一遍又一遍理解大家的解释，我还是没弄清楚，现在是非常的糊涂。。 请大家帮帮偶哦 大全5－20 20. For a local government to outlaw all strikes by its workers is a costly mistake, because all its labor disputes must then be settled by binding arbitration, without any negotiated public-sector labor settlements guiding the arbitrators. Strikes should be outlawed only for categories of public-sector workers for whose services no acceptable substitute exists. The statements above best support which of the following conclusions? (A) Where public-service workers are permitted to strike, contract negotiations with those workers are typically settled without a strike. (B) Where strikes by all categories of pubic-sector workers are outlawed, no acceptable substitutes for the services provided by any of those workers are available. (C) Binding arbitration tends to be more advantageous for public-service workers where it is the only available means of settling labor disputes with such workers. (D) Most categories of public-sector workers have no counterparts in the private sector.（C） (E) A strike by workers in a local government is unlikely to be settled without help from an arbitrator. 看了以前大家对这题的解释，我现在是这样理解这个题目的：当地政府把政府工作人员的所有罢工列为非法是一个昂贵的错误，因为所有这些劳动争端接着将通过达成仲裁协议解决（即是通过某协商机构的协商解决，但是这种协商费用昂贵），而且不受任何（较低级别的）negotiation的解决方法所引导。只有当罢工者从事别人无法替代的工作时，才可以把罢工列为非法。我的理解对嘛？？那C选项又是什么意思呢？？？ 题干中的“because all its labor disputes must then be settled by binding arbitration, without any negotiated public-sector labor settlements guiding the arbitrators.”，请问这里的all its labor disputes是指包括罢工在内的所有劳动纠纷吗？那这边的then是什么意思呢？这里的because怎么解释前面的“For a local government to outlaw all strikes by its workers is a costly mistake”呢？与后面的without any negotiated....又是什么关系呢？ 还请大家多多指教，感谢！！ | 
